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Questions about: Apologetics and Theology
Zionites: (04/30/07) Hi! I have a Question that I spent hours struggling with it. My church friends and I just couldn't get the satisfying answer. Please help us. According to Gen17:5 and Gen 32:28,God gave both of these men a new name. Right after their name has been changed, the Bible recorded Abram as Abraham. However, Bible did not recorded Jacob as Isreal. Bible kept using Jacob's old name eventhough God said "Your name will no longer be Jacob." Why is that?

Jack: Interesting question, Zoinites. I’ve never considered it before, and can’t give you an authoritative answer. Some ideas, however:

1) The meaning of his name: As you know, “Jacob” means “supplanter” or “deceiver.” In changing Jacob’s name, God was indicating that as a person he would no longer be known by this characteristic. In contrast, God would look upon him as “Israel,” one who contends with God (and in the context of Peniel) as a man of prayer, in the light of God’s promises for him and his descendants. In contrast, the change of Abraham’s name from “Abram” (exalted father) to “Abraham” (father of a multitude) had more to do with a call to believe God’s promise.

2) The meaning of his family: With his new name, “Israel,” came the projection of a people, “the children of Israel.” However, in the prophets, “Jacob” continues to be a synonym for “Israel” (Isaiah 2:5ff; 8:17; Amos 3:13, etc.).

This is the best I can do. Ask the same question of a Bible scholar some time!

Jack

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